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Q4 OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two should ActualTests.com be considered when utilizing OSPF stub areas?
A. OSPF stub areas increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs
B. OSPF not so stubby areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization
C. OSPF stub areas are always insulated from external changes
D. OSPF totally stubby cannot distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside the areas
E. OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for destinations that are external to the OSPF domain
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 Q5 Which two statements are correct regarding Flex Links? (Choose two)
A. An interface can belong to multiple Flex Links.
B. Flex Links operate only over single pairs of links.
C. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type
D. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated
E. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Q6
Which of these technologies is characterized as being a multipoint Layer 2 VPN that connects two or more
customer devices using Ethernet bridging techniques?

A. DPT
B. MPLS
C. VPLS
D. CWDM
E. DWDM
F. SONET/SDH
Answer: C
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q7 DRAG DROP
Drag the best practice recommendation for an Enterprise Campus network on the left to the technology to which it most applies on the right.

Answer:

Q8
Why is STP required when VLANs span access layer switches?

A. to ensure a loop-free topology
B. to protect against user-side loops
C. in order to support business applications
D. because of the risk of lost connectivity without STP
E. for the most deterministic and highly available network topology
Answer: B
Explanation: Q9 When designing the IP routing for the Enterprise Campus network, which of these following two iBGB considerations should be taken into account? ActualTests.com
A. iBGB dual horning with different iSPs puts the Enterprise at the risk of becoming a transit network
B. iBGP requires a full mesh of eBGP peers
C. Routers will not advertise iBGP learned routers to other iBGP peers.
D. The use of route reflections or Confederation eliminate any full mesh requirement while helping to scale iBGP
E. iGBP peers do not add any information to the AS path
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 5 Q10 Which virtualization technology allows multiple physical devices to be combined into a single logical device?
A. device visualization
B. device clustering
C. server visualization
D. network visualization
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q11
Which two of these are characteristics of MPLS VPNs? (Choose two)

A. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs can forward only IP packets
B. Layer 2 MPLS VPNs can forward any network protocol
C. MPL S label paths are automatically formed based on Layer 2 frames
D. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs can forward any network protocol based on Layer 2 frames
E. In Layer 2 MPLS VPNS, the service provider controls the customer Layer 3 policies
Answer: A,B
Explanation: Q12 ActualTests.com Which technology is an example of the need for a designer to clearly define features and designed performance when designing advanced WAN services with a service provider?
A. FHRP to remote branches.
B. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs routing.
C. Control protocols (for example Spanning Tree Protocol) for a Layer 3 MPLS service.
D. Intrusion prevention, QoS, and stateful firewall support network wide.
Answer: B
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 6 Q13 Which two restrictions must the Enterprise Campus network designer consider when evaluating WAN connectivity options? (Choose two)
A. OSPF over multicast EMS or VPLS network may not have consistent broadcast or multicast performance
B. IP multicast is not supported over Lover 3 MPLS VPN; instead a Layer 2 MPLS WN must be utilized with service provider support
C. QoS requirements with MPLS-VPN must be implemented by the service provider
D. Hierarchical VPLS designs are the least scalable
E. IGMP snooping is not on option with VPLS or EMS; instead administrative scoping or allowing sufficient bandwidth for unnecessary multicast traffic at the edge links is required
Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Q14
There are 3 steps to confirm whether a range of IP address can be summarized. When of the following is
used in each of these 3 steps?

A. The first number in the contiguous block of addresses
B. The last number in the contiguous block of addresses
C. The size of the contiguous block of addresses
D. The subnet mask of the original network address
Answer: A
Explanation: ActualTests.com Q15 DRAG DROP
Drag the characteristic on the left the associated firewall deployment or topology on the right.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 7

Answer: Q16 Which of these recommendations is most appropriate for the core layer in the Cisco Campus ActualTests.com Architecture?

A. Utilize Layer 3 switching
B. Utilize software accelerated services
C. Aggregate end users and support a feature-rich environment
D. Perform packet manipulation and filtering at the core layer
E. Use redundant point to-point Layer 2 interconnections when where is a link or node failure.
Answer: A
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8 Q17 Which of the following is true concerning best design practices at the switched Access layer of the traditional layer2 Enterprise Campus Network?
A. Cisco NSF with SSO and redundant supervisors has the most impact on the campus in the Access layer
B. Provides host-level redundancy by connecting each end device to 2 separate Access switches
C. Offer default gateway redundancy by using dual connections from Access switches to redundant Distribution layer switches using a FHRP
D. Include a link between two Access switches to support summarization of routing information
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q18
Wh.ch three Layer 2 access designs have all of their uplinks in an active state? (Choose three)

A. Flex Links
B. loop free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
E. loop-tree inverted U
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q19 In base e-Commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?
A. core layer
B. Internet boundary
C. aggregation layer
D. aggregation and core layers
E. access and aggregation layers
Answer: A
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 9 Q20 When an Enterprise Campus network designer is addressing the merger of two companies with different IGPs, which of the following is considering a super routing design?
A. Eliminate the management and support for redistribution by choosing and cutting over to a single IGP at the time of merger
B. Maintain distinct pockets across a moving boundary of routing protocols, redistributing between them
C. Manipulate the administrative distance of the different IGPs to be equal throughout the network
D. Leave the IGPs independent without redistribution wherever communication between company entities is not required
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q21
From a design perspective which two of the following OHPF Statements are most relevant? (Choose two)

A. OSPF stub areas can be thought of as a simple form of summarization
B. OSPF cannot filter intra area routes
C. An ARR ran only exist in two areas – the backbone and one adjacent area
D. Performance issues in the Backbone area can be offset by allowing some traffic to transit a non-backbone area ActualTests.com
E. the size of an area (the LSDB) will be constrained by the size of the IP MTU
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Q22
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?

A. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access arid distribution blocks
B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 10
C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks
F. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks
Answer: F

Explanation:
Q23
Which two statements about layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)

A. IP address space is difficult to manage.
B. Broadcast and fault domains arc increased
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP
D. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported tor failover and fallback
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Q24
Which two statements about SCSI are true? (Choose two)

A. The bus is limited to 32 devices
B. It is a full duplex serial standard ActualTests.com
C. It is a half-duplex serial standard
D. It allows up to 320 MB/s of shared channel bandwidth
Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Q25
What are two characteristics of Server Load Balancing router mode? (Choose two)

A. The design supports multiple server subnets “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 11
B. An end-user sees the IP address of the real server
C. SLB routes between the outside and inside subnets
D. The source or destination MAC address is rewritten, but the IP addresses left alone
E. SLB acts as a “bump in the wire” between servers and upstream firewall or Layer 3 devices
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Q26
When designing the Network Admission Control (NAC) Appliance for the Enterprise Campus Network,
which of the following requirements would help the designer to narrow down the NAC choices, from Virtual
Gateway to Real IP Gateway, or from In-band to Out-band?

A. QoS ToS/DSCP values are required to be forwarded transparently
B. Device redundancy is required
C. Per-user ACL support is required
D. Multicast service support is required
Answer: C
Explanation: Q27 DRAG DROP
Drag the characteristic on the left to the corresponding RP model on the right.

ActualTests.com Answer:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 12

Q28 Which unique characteristics of the Data Center Aggregation layer must be considered by an Enterprise Campus designer?
A. Layer 3 routing between the Access and Aggregation layers facilities the ability to span VLANs across multiple access switches, which is a requirement for many server virtualization and clustering technologies.
B. “East-west” server-to-server traffic can travel between aggregation modules by way of the core, but backup and replication traffic typically remains within an aggregation module.
C. Load balancing, firewall service, and other network service are commonly integrated by the use of service modules that are inserted in the aggregation switched.
D. Virtualization tools allow a cost effective approach for redundancy in the network design by using two or four VDCs from the same physical switch.
Answer: D
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q29 How does the Ethernet Relay Service use the VLAN tag?
A. to provide service internetworking
B. to support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. as a connection identifier to indicate destination
D. as a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking
E. to provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites
Answer: C
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 13 Q30 What is the most common mode for a firewall?
A. routed mode
B. context mode
C. bridged mode
D. transparent mode
E. full security mode
Answer: A
Explanation: Q31 Refer to the exhibit.

ActualTests.com The Cisco Nexus 100v in the VMware vSphere solution effectively creates an additional access layer in the virtualized data center network, which of the following 1000v characteristics can the designer take advantage of?
A. Offloads the STP requirement from the external Access layer switches
B. If upstream access switches do not support vPC or VSS the dual-homed ESX host traffic can still be distributed using virtual port channel host mode using subgroups automatically discovered through CDP
C. Allow transit traffic to be forwarded through the ESX host between VMNICs
D. Can be divided into multiple virtual device contexts for service integration, enhanced security, administrative boundaries, and flexibility of deployment “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 14
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q32
What two descriptions best define DWDM? (Choose two)

A. a WDM system that is compatible with EDFA technology
B. an optical technology for transmitting up to 16 channels over multiple fiber strands
C. an optical technology for transmitting up to 32 channels over multiple fiber strands
D. a technology for transmitting multiple optical signals using less sophisticated transceiver design then CWDM
E. a technology for transmitting more closely packed optical signals using more sophisticated transceiver designs than CWDM
Answer: A,E

Explanation:
Q33
Which two characteristics are true of IVRs? (Choose two)

A. They are known as fabric routing
B. They cannot span multiple switches
C. Their connectivity is supported by Layer 2
D. They enable devices in different VSAN fabrics to communicate
E. They require that multiple switch fabrics be merged before they can function ActualTests.com
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Q34
Which of these is a correct description of Stateful Switchover?

A. It will only become active after a software failure
B. It will only become active after a hardware failure
C. It requires that Cisco N3F be enabled in order to work successfully “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 15
D. It synchronizes the MAC, FIB, and adjacency tables between Active and Standby Route Processors
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q35
Which technology is best suited for the most scalable means to separate the data plane for a Layers VPN?

A. GRE
B. 802 1Q
C. MPLS
D. L2TPv3
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q36
Refer to the exhibit.
ActualTests.com
Which recommended practice is applicable?
A. If no core layer is deployed, the design will be easier to scale
B. A dedicated campus core layer should be deployed for connecting three or more buildings
C. If no core layer is deployed, the distribution switches should not be fully meshed “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 16
D. A dedicated campus core layer is not needed for connecting fewer than five buildings
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q37
To which switch or switches should you provide redundant links in order to achieve high availability with
reliable fast convergence in the enterprise campus?

A. to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 2 link
B. to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 3 link
C. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with Layer 2 link
D. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with Layer 3 link
E. to two core switches running Cisco NSF and SSO from two redundant distribution switches running Cisco NSF and SSO
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q38
The requirement for high availability within the Data Center network may cause the designer to consider
which one of the following solutions?

ActualTests.com

A. Construct a hierarchical network design using EtherChannel between a server and two VDCs from the same physical switch
B. Utilize Cisco NSF with SSO to provide intrachassis SSO at Layers 2 to 4
C. Define the Data Center as an OSPF NSSA area, advertising a default route into the DC And summarizing the routes out of the NSSA to the Campus Core
D. Implement network services for the Data Center as a separate services layer using active/active model that is more predictable in failure conditions
Answer: D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 17 Q39 Which four Cisco priority Spanning Tree Protocol enhancements are supported with rapid per- VLAN Spanning Tree? (Choose four)
A. PortFast
B. UplinkFast
C. loop guard
D. root guard
E. BPDU guard
F. BackboneFast
Answer: A,C,D,E

Explanation:
Q40
When designing remote access to the Enterprise Campus network for teleworkers and mobile workers,
which of the following should the designer consider?

A. It is recommended to place the VPN termination device in line with the Enterprise Edge 1
B. Maintaining access rules, based on the source IP of the client, on an internal firewall drawn from a headend RADIUS server is the most secure deployment
C. VPN Headend routing using Reverse Route Injection (RRI) with distribution is recommended when the remote user community is small and dedicated DHCP scopes are in place
D. Clientless SSL VPNs provide more granular access control than SSL VPN clients (thin or thick), including at Layer 7
Answer: A
ActualTests.com Explanation: Q41 Which EIGRP feature should a designer consider to limit the scope of EIGRP queries and minimize convergence time?
A. Using multiple EIGRP processes
B. Tuning down the EIGRP delay parameter C. FIGRP stub routing
D. Limiting the number of EIGRP neighbor per device “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 18
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q42
When designing the routing for an Enterprise Campus network it is important to keep while of the following
filtering aspects in mind?

A. Filtering is only useful when combined with route summarization
B. It is best to filter (allow) the default and summary prefixes only in the Enterprise Edge to remote sites or site-to-site IPsec VPN networks
C. IGPs (for example EIGRP or OSPF) are superior to route filtering in avoiding in inappropriate transit traffic through remote nodes or inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates
D. The primary limitation of router filtering is that it can only be applied on outbound updates
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q43
When considering the design of the IPv6 address plan for the Enterprise Campus network, which of the
following should serve as guidance?

A. All the IPv6 subnets should use a /32 prefix
B. Set aside /31 prefixes to support point-to-point links and loopback interfaces
C. The IPv6 address plan should be designed to support the service block model design or integration with IPv4 ActualTests.com
D. Designate 16 subnet bits to be split up intelligently, either by OSPF area. VLAN numbering, or IPv4 mapping
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q44
Which factor is least likely to affect the scalability of a VPN design?

A. number of branch offices “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 19
B. number of IGP routing peers
C. remote Office and home worker throughput bandwidth requirements
D. high availability requirements
E. Supported applications
Answer: E

Explanation:
Q45
Which of the following is true when considering the Server load-balancing design within the E- Commerce
Module of the Enterprise Campus network?

A. Routed mode requires the ACE run OSPF or EIGRP
B. Bridged mode switches a packet between the public and the private subnets when it sees its MAC address as the destination
C. Two-armed mode will place the SLB inline to the servers, with different client-side and a server- side VLANs
D. One-armed mode, which uses the same VLAN for the client, the ACE, and the servers, requires a traffic-diversion mechanism to ensure the traffic return from the server passes though the ACE
Answer: D
Explanation: Q46 Which of the following is true regarding the effect of EIGRP queries on the network design? ActualTests.com
A. EIGRP queries will be the most significant issue with respect to stability and convergence
B. EIGRP queries are not a consideration as long as EIGRP has a feasible successor with a next hop AD that is greater than the FD of the current successor route
C. EIGRP queries will only increase the convergence time when there are no EIGRP stubs designed in the network
Answer: C
Explanation: Q47 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 20 Which two statements correctly identify considerations to take into account when deciding on Campus QoS Design elements? (Choose two)
A. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue
B. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue
C. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service
D. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50 percent of the capacity of the link
E. At least 33 percent or the link bandwidth should be reserved tor default best effort class
Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Q48
Wh.ch version of spanning tree is recommended for the enterprise campus?

A. CST
B. MST
C. STP
D. PVST+
E. PVRST+
Answer: E

Explanation:
Q49
ActualTests.com
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two)

A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 hits of the MAC address are used to map IP address
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01 uu4t MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 21 Q50 What is the recommended practice regarding UDLD when implementing it in all fiber-optic LAN ports?
A. Adjust the default hello timers to three seconds for aggressive mode
B. Enable it in global mode and on every interface you need to support
C. Enable it in global mode to support every individual fiber-optic interface
D. Enable it to create channels containing up to eight parallel links between switches
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q51
Which of the following two statements about Cisco NSF and SSO are the most relevant to the network
designer? (Choose two)

A. You can reduce outage 1 to 3 seconds by using SSO in Layer 2 environment or Cisco NSF with SSO in a Layer 3 environment.
B. SSO and NSF each require the device to either be graceful restart-capable or graceful-aware.
C. In a fully redundant topology adding redundant supervisor a with NSF and SSO may cause longer convergence times than single supervisors with turned IGP times
D. The primary deployment scenario for Cisco NSF with SSO is in the Distribution and Core layers.
E. Cisco NSF-aware neighbor relationship are independent of any turned IGP times ActualTests.com
Answer: A,B

Explanation:
Q52
Which of these statements about FSPF is true?

A. It supports multipath routing
B. It can run any type of storage ports
C. When it is used, hop-by-hop routes are based only on the switch ID
D. When it is used, path status is based on the functionality of attached ports “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.”
–
www.actualtests.com 22

E.
It runs only on a switch fabric and cannot function in a VSAN
Answer: A
Explanation: Q53 Refer to the exhibit ActualTests.com

Which of the following is an advantage of device clustering utilizing Virtual Port Channels (vPC)?
A. A logical star topology provides a loop free environment so that all links will be used forward traffic
B. Enhanced EtherChannel hashing load balancing using the vPC peer link internal to the VPC “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 23
C. The control plane functions of the Nexus switches are merged to hide the use of virtualization
D. Neighboring devices connect on a Layer 3 MEC for improved packet forwarding
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q54
Which three statements about firewall modes are correct? (Choose three)

A. A firewall in routed mode has one IP address
B. A firewall in transparent mode has one IP address
C. In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 dew
D. In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device
E. In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 device
F. In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation: Q55 Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) is mainly used to increase packet switching speed, reducing the overhead and delays introduced by other routing techniques, increasing overall performance. Which of the following concerning CEF is recommended by Cisco?
A. Use default Layer 4 hash in core.
B. Use default Layer 3 hash in distribution.
C. Use default Layer 4 hash in distribution. ActualTests.com
D. Use default Layer 3 hash in core and Layer 3 + Layer 4 hash in distribution layer.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q56
Which typical enterprise campus requirement ensures that the network supports the required applications
and that data flows within the required time frames?

A. availability
B. performance
C. functionality “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 24
D. manageability
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q57
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which of these is a Layer 2 transport architecture that
provides packet-based transmission optimized for data based on a dual ring topology?

A. Dynamic Trunking Protocol
B. Resilient Packet Ring
C. Synchronous Digital Hierarchy
D. Coarse Wave Division Multiplexing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q58
What two choices can you make when redundancy is required from a branch office to a regional office?
(Choose two.)

A. multiple Frame Relay PVCs
B. dual Wan links to the regional office
C. dual Wan links to another branch office
D. single links – one to the regional office and one to another branch office ActualTests.com
Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Q59
Which one is not the feature of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network architecture?

A. network unification
B. remote access
C. mobility services
D. network management “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 25
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q60
What type of Call Admission control in CallManager allows for limits to the bandwidth consumed by active
calls?

A. regions
B. partitions
C. locations
D. device Pools
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q61
Which two of these are correct regarding the recommended practice for distribution layer design based on
the following configuration?
ActualTests.com
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 26
A. use a Layer 2 link between distribution switches
B. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches
C. use a redundant link to the core
D. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches with route summarization
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Q62
Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least disruption
of service when making topology changes?

A. dynamic reconfiguration
B. path MTU discovery
C. auto setup
D. remote management
Answer: A
Explanation: Dynamic reconfiguration: All configuration changes should take effect without requiring a reboot of the device. Disruption of service with a fully loaded VPN device can potentially impact thousands of individual users. Reference: Arch student guide p.9-17 Q63 ActualTests.com Jitter is an unwanted variation of one or more characteristics of a periodic signal in electronics and telecommunications and _____refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival
A. echo
B. jitter
C. packet loss
D. digitized sampling
Answer: B
Explanation: Q64 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 27 Which three components are part of the Intelligent Network Services provided by the Cisco AVVID framework? (Choose three.)
A. IP telephony
B. security
C. IP multicasting
D. QoS
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation: Q65 Cisco IDS sensors form the eyes and ears of your Cisco network intrusion detection system. Placing sensors correctly throughout your network is crucial to successfully implementing your Cisco intrusion detection system .Which two of these are characteristics of an IDS sensor? (Choose two.)
A. has a permissive interface that is used to monitor networks
B. is an active device in the traffic path
C. passively listens to network traffic
D. has a promiscuous interface that is used to monitor the network Answer: C,D
Explanation: Q66 ActualTests.com Which three best practices should be implemented at the campus backbone submodule to support the server farm module? (Choose three.)
A. Implement highly redundant switching and links with no single points or paths of failure.
B. Implement server load balancing.
C. Implement the Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) for failover protection.
D. Implement intrusion detection with automatic notification of intrusion attempts in place.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation: Q67 “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 28 As an experienced technician, you are responsible for Technical Support. One of the trainees is asking your advice on VPN Termination Device and Firewall Placement. Which of the following approaches will you recommend?
A. inline with a firewall
B. in a DMZ outside the firewall
C. parallel with a firewall
D. in a DMZ behind the firewall
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q68
The network administrator would like to generate synthetic traffic using the Service Assurance Agent
contained in Cisco IOS. Which CiscoWorks network management application will be used to report the
latency and availability for configured traffic operations on an end-to-end and hop-by- hop (router-to router)
basis?

A. nGenius Real-Time Monitor
B. CiscoView
C. Device Fault Manager
D. Internetwork Performance Monitor
Answer: D
Explanation: Q69 ActualTests.com Cisco IDS sensors form the eyes and ears of your Cisco network intrusion detection system. Placing sensors correctly throughout your network is crucial to successfully implementing your Cisco intrusion detection system . Where can an IPS sensor be placed in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
A. core layer
B. bridging two VLANs on one switch
C. between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
D. between two Layer 2 devices without trunking
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 29 Q70 Which protocol would provide block access to remote storage over WAN links?
A. iSCSI
B. FCIP
C. SCSI-FP
D. eSCSI
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q71
The Cisco network-based virtual firewall service solution helps service providers to deliver cost- effective,
scalable, integrated security services for enterprise customers using Cisco platforms .What is a virtual
firewall?

A. another name for a firewall deployed in routed mode
B. another name for a firewall deployed in transparent mode
C. a separation of multiple firewall security contexts on a single firewall
D. a firewall that, when deployed in routed mode, can support up to 1000 VLANs per context
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q72
ActualTests.com
What is the device weight limit per CallManager in a Cisco IP phone configuration?

A. 2500
B. 3000
C. 5000
D. 6500
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q73
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 30
In a VoWLAN deployment, It is recommended ___ dBm separation between cells with the same channel.

A. 6
B. 7
C. 10
D. 19
Answer: D
Explanation: Q74 Acme Nutrition manufactures a wide variety of vitamin supplements. It has a single manufacturing facility with 3 regional warehouses and 16 district sales offices. Currently the manufacturing facility requires 210 IP addresses; each warehouse requires 51 IP addresses; each district sales office requires 11 IP addresses; and the IP WAN requires 38 IP addresses. if Acme Nutrition plans for 20 percent growth in facilities, how many Class C subnets will the district sales offices require?
A. 19 (3 from the warehouse range and 16 from a separate Class C address)
B. 19 (3 from the warehouse block, 15 from a separate Class C block and 1 from the IP WAN block)
C. 20 (4 from the warehouse range,15 from a separate Class C block and 1 from the IP WAN block)
D. 16 (3 from the warehouse range and 13 from a separate Class C address)
Answer: B
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q75 You are the Cisco Network Designer. Which of these is least important when determining how many users a NAS can support?
A. bandwidth
B. number of plug-ins per scan
C. total number of network devices
D. number of checks in each posture assessment
Answer: A
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 31 Q76 When designing the WAN module within the enterprise edge, which document is used to specify the connectivity and performance agreements with the service provider?
A. RFP
B. RFC
C. SLC/SLA
D. SOW
Answer: C
Explanation: Q77 Which site-to-site VPN solution allows Cisco routers, PIX Firewalls, and Cisco hardware clients to act as remote VPN clients in order to receive predefined security policies and configuration parameters from the VPN headend at the central site?
A. Easy VPN
B. GRE tunneling
C. Virtual Tunnel Interfaces
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN
E. Group Encrypted Transport VPN
Answer: A
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q78 Which routing protocol supports a flexible area structure using routing levels one and two?
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. IS-IS
D. BGP
Answer: C
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 32 Q79 Please match the Cisco STP enahancement term to its definition.(Not all options will be used.)
(1)
BPDU guard

(2)
PortFast

(3)
BackboneFast

(4)
UplinkFast

(5)
Root guard

(a)
shuts down a port that receives a BPDU when enabled

(b)
cuts convergence time by mas-age for indirect failure

(d)
causes Layer 2 LAN interface access port to immediately enter the forwarding state

(f)
helps prevent bridging loops due to jni-directional link failures on point-to-point links

A.
(a)-(1);(b)-(2);(c)-(4);(d)-(5);(e)-(3)

B.
(a)-(4);(b)-(3);(c)-(2);(d)-(5);(e)-(1)

C.
(a)-(3);(b)-(2);(c)-(4);(d)-(5);(e)-(1)

D.
(a)-(1);(b)-(4);(c)-(3);(d)-(5);(e)-(2)
Answer: D
Explanation:
ActualTests.com
Cisco offers a variety of enhancements to STP:

Explanation:
Q81
Which two of these are recommended practices with trunks? (Choose two.)

A. use ISL encapsulation
B. use 802.1q encapsulation
C. set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation
D. use VTP server mode to support dynamic propagation of VLAN information across the network
E. set DTP to desirable and desirable with encapsulation negotiate to support DTP protocol negotiation.
Answer: B,E

Explanation:
ActualTests.com
Q82
What are three primary activities in the cycle of building an enterprise security strategy? (Choose three.)

A. activity audit
B. administration
C. policy establishment
D. technology implementation “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 34
Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
Q83
For acceptable voice calls, the packet error rate should be less than___%

A. 0.01
B. 0.1
C. 1
D. 2.5
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q84
What are two design guidelines for VoIP networks? (Choose two.)

A. Delay should be no more than 10 ms.
B. Loss should be no more than 1 percent.
C. Jitter should be less then 40 ms.
D. Managed bandwidth is strongly recommended for voice control traffic.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q85 You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which of these statements is true of clientless end-user devices?
A. They do not receive unique IP addresses.
B. RADIUS or LDAP is required.
C. They are assigned addresses from the internal DHCP pool.
D. Their traffic appears to originate from the originating host network.
Answer: A
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 35 Q86 Users of a site-to-site VPN are reporting performance problems. The VPN connection employs IPSec and GRE and traverses several Ethernet segments. The VPN packets are being fragmented as they traverse the links. What would be two methods to overcome this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Employ path MTU discovery.
B. Set the MTU higher than 1500 bytes.
C. Turn off pre-fragmentation for IPSec.
D. Set the MTU value to 1400 bytes.
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Q87
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which statement is correct regarding NBAR and
NetFlow?

A. NBAR examines data in Layers 1 and 4.
B. NBAR examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
C. NetFlow examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
D. NBAR examines data in Layers 2 through 4.
Answer: B
Explanation: Q88 ActualTests.com Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Answer: B
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 36 Q89 It’s a configuration that experts are calling a “firewall sandwich,” with the second firewall providing a second level of load balancing after traffic down. What is meant by the term “firewall sandwich”?
A. single layer of firewalling
B. multiple layers of firewalling
C. firewall connections in either an active or standby state
D. an architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific servers
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q90
To securely transport EIGRP traffic, a network administrator will build VPNs between sites. What is the
best method to accomplish the transport of EIGRP traffic?

A. IPSec in tunnel mode
B. IPSec in transport mode
C. GRE with IPSec in transport mode
D. GRE with IPSec in tunnel mode
Answer: C
Explanation: Q91 When BGP tuning is used, how is packet flow into the e-commerce module controlled? ActualTests.com
A. by tracking the status of objects along the path to the e-commerce module
B. by detecting undesirable conditions along the path to the e-commerce module
C. by using the MED to communicate the site preferences for traffic to multiple ISPs
D. by communicating the available prefixes, routing policies, and preferences of each site to its ISP
E. by moving the SLB to a position where selected traffic to and from the servers does not go through the SLB
Answer: D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 37 Q92 Which three objectives would be met by designing Layer 3 switching in the Campus Backbone of a medium size installation? (Choose three.)
A. scale to a large size
B. increase router peering
C. provide a flexible topology with no spanning tree loops
D. control broadcasts in the backbone
Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
Q93
You are the Cisco Network Designer. Which is not major scaling, sizing, and performance consideration
for an IPsec design?

A. connection speed
B. number of remote sites
C. features to be supported
D. types of devices at the remote site
Answer: D
Explanation: Q94 ActualTests.com
Which enterprise caching mode eliminates the need for Layer 4 switches or WCCP enabled routers to intercept user requests?
A. transparent
B. proxy
C. reverse proxy
D. direct
Answer: B
Explanation: In proxy mode, end-user web browsers need to be explicitly configured to the IP address or host name of the Content Engine, and there is no need for additional hardware such as Layer 4 switches or Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)-enabled routers to intercept user
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 38 requests, as in transparent caching. Enterprises are normally interested in deploying transparent network caching, but some enterprises may have a legacy requirement for a proxy (nontransparent) cache. Reference: Arch student guide p.12-12 Q95 You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which signal and noise values will result in the best phone communication with an access point?
A. signal strength 5dBm
B. signal strength 6dBm
C. noise level 4dBm
D. noise level 5dBm
Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Q96
What are two considerations to using IP Multicast delivery? (Choose two.)

A. no congestion avoidance
B. not for bandwidth intensive applications
C. no guaranteed delivery mechanism
D. source sends multiple data streams out each interface ActualTests.com
Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Q97
Which remote access VPN addressing technique supports a static IP address to support a specific
application?

A. Use a static ip addresses based on incoming user policies.
B. Use DHCP to assign addresses based on incoming user policies.
C. Deploy a clientless model to assign a unique address to the user. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 39
D. Deploy RADIUS or LDAP to assign the address to the user.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q98
Which three are used in configuring Call Manager dial plans? (Choose three.)

A. route list
B. route group
C. gateway list
D. route pattern
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Q99
Which two of these are characteristics of an IPS device? (Choose two.)

A. passively listens to network traffic
B. is an active device in the traffic path
C. has a permissive interface that is used to monitor networks
D. traffic arrives on one IPS interface and exits on another
Answer: B,D
ActualTests.com Explanation: Q100 Which three LAN routing protocols would be appropriate for a small retail organization with a multi- vendor LAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40
Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:
Q101
One of your customer has six sites, three of which process a large amount of traffic among them. He plans
to grow the number of sites in the future. Which is the most appropriate design topology?

A. full mesh
B. peer-to-peer
C. partial mesh
D. hub and spoke
Answer: C
Explanation: Q102 ABC Company has 1500 managed devices and 15,000 end users on a campus network. LAN Management Solution (LMS) is being deployed as the network management application. What is the recommended number of network management server(s)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

ActualTests.com
Explanation:
Q103
You are the network consultant from Cisco.com.Your customer has eight sites and will add in the future.

Branch site to branch site traffic is approaching 30 percent. The customer’s goals are to make it easier to
add branch sites in the future and to reduce traffic through the hub. Which VPN topology should you
recommend?

A. Easy VPN
B. IPsec GRE tunneling “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 41
C. Virtual Tunnel Interfaces
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN
Answer: D
Explanation: Q104 The Schuyler and Livingston Iron Works has been working on getting its network security under control. It has set up VPN with IPSec links to its suppliers. It has installed network vulnerability scanners to proactively identify areas of weakness, and it monitors and responds to security events as they occur. It also employs extensive access control lists, stateful firewall implementations, and dedicated firewall appliances. The company has been growing very fast lately and wants to make sure it is up to date on security measures. Which two areas of security would you advise the company to strengthen? (Choose two.)
A. intrusion protection
B. identity
C. secure connectivity
D. security management
Answer: A,B

Explanation: The right answer should be identity and intrusion protection (A,B) because security
management is covered by the vulnerability scanner and monitor.
Q105
Which two of these key fields are used to identify a flow in a traditional NetFlow implementation?
ActualTests.com
(Choose two.)

A. source port
B. output interface
C. next-hop IP address
D. source MAC address
E. destination IP address
F. next-hop MAC address
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 42 Q106 Users at the Charleville Company began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer- to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
A. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
B. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions.
C. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
D. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q107
You are the network consultant from Cisco.com. Please point out two statements correctly describe an IPS
device?

A. It resembles a Layer 2 bridge.
B. Traffic flow through the IPS resembles traffic flow through a Layer 3 router.
C. Inline interfaces which have no IP addresses cannot be detected.
D. Malicious packets that have been detected are allowed to pass through, but all subsequent traffic is blocked.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q108 Captain Marion’s Videography delivers Internet digital video using 9 MPEG video encoders and a statistical multiplexer. Channels are packed into a 6-MHz channel bandwidth.The MPEG multiplexe monitors and allocates the appropriate bandwidth. The multiplexer measures available bandwidth and feeds back signaling to the MPEG encoders. Coding rates are then increased or decreased. Packet generation from each input source is controlled such that no packets are dropped and no extra null packets can be generated.
These bandwidth and traffic requirements work best with which mode of video delivery?
A. fixed broadcast
B. open looped “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 43
C. quality equalization
D. VoD delivery
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q109
Please match the Cisco NAC appliance component to its description.

(1)Cisco NAS

(2)Cisco NAA

(3)Rule-set Lpdates
(4)Cisco NAM

(a)
a centralized management point

(b)
an in-band cr out-of-band device for network access control

(d)
a status crecker for operating systems,antivirus,antispyware,etc

A.
(a)-(4);(b)-(1);(c)-(2);(d)-(3)

B.
(a)-(3);(b)-(2);(c)-(4);(d)-(1)

C.
(a)-(4);(b)-(3);(c)-(1);(d)-(2) ActualTests.com

D.
(a)-(2);(b)-(4);(c)-(3);(d)-(1)
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q110
What is the first step that you would use Cisco Product Advisor for when selecting a router for an Edge
solution?

A. determine types of protocols to be supported
B. determine the environment in which the router will be used “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 44
C. select the number of WAN ports required
D. select the number of LAN ports required
Answer: B Explanation: Q111 DRAG DROP

Answer:

ActualTests.com Q112 What is a criteria of the enterprise composite network model?
A. includes all modules needed to meet any network design
B. defines flexible boundaries between modules for scalability requirements
C. clearly defines module boundaries and demarcation points to identify where traffic is
D. requires specific core, distribution, and access layer requirements to match the model
Answer: C
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 45 Q113 DRAG DROP Answer:
ActualTests.com Q114 Which routing protocol best fits these requirements?
-Supported by multiple router vendors
-Requires minimum router CPU and memory resources
-Uses a simple routing metric
–
Supports manual or automatic route summarization “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 46

A.
EIGRP

B.
OSPF

C.
IS-IS

D.
RIPv2 Answer: D
Explanation:
Q115
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the topologies shown are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Design 1 is a looped triangle design.
B. Design 2 is a looped triangle design.
C. Design 2 achieves quick convergence using RSTP.
D. Both designs support stateful services at the aggregation layer.
E. Design 2 is the most widely deployed in enterprise data centers.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q116 Which two of the following Cisco router platforms support Multicast Distributed Fast Switching? (Choose two.)
A. 3600 series
B. 7200 series with NSE-1
C. 7500 series
D. 12000 series
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 47 Q117 Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. multicast routing uses RPF.
B. multicast routing is connectionless.
C. In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known.
D. When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path
E. Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather than just one destination
Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Q118
Which IOS QoS enhancement was created to address scalability and bandwidth guarantee issues?

A. DiffServ
B. IntServ
C. RSVP
D. WFQ
Answer: C
Explanation:
ActualTests.com
Q119
Refer to the exhibit. When deploying an MSFC and an FWSM, which statement is correct?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 48
A. Proper placement depends on the VLAN assignment.
B. Place it outside the firewall.
C. Place it inside the firewall to make design and management easier.
D. Place it inside the firewall with multiple context modes connecting to all configured contexts.
Answer: A
Explanation: ActualTests.com Q120 Sun Stable is a global insurance company with headquarters located in Houston, Texas. The campus there is made up of a number of office buildings located within the same vicinity. In 2003, a new building, Building 331B was added. The additional building houses approximately 1000 employees. Rather than deploy a private branch exchange (PBX) in the new building, Sun Stable has decided to implement an IP telephony solution. External calls will be carried across a MAN link to another building, where a gateway connects into the worldwide PBX network of Sun Stable. Voice mail and unified messaging components are required and all IP phones and workstations should be on separate VLANs and IP subnets.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49 Which IP telephony deployment best suits their need?
A. single-site
B. multisite with centralized call processing
C. multisite with distributed call processing
D. clustering over the WAN
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q121
Which roaming option will keep them on the same IP subnet when client traffic is being bridged through
LAN interfaces on two WLCs?

A. Layer 1 intercontroller roaming
B. Layer 2 intercontroller roaming
C. Layer 3 intercontroller roaming
D. Layer 4 intercontroller roaming
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q122
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?

ActualTests.com

A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level
B. redundant servers at the access level
C. modular block design at the access level
D. high port densities at the access level
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q123
Which three of these are major scaling, sizing, and performance considerations for an IPsec design?
(Choose three.)

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50

A. connection speed
B. number of remote sites
C. features to be supported
D. types of devices at the remote site
E. whether packets are encrypted using 3DES or AES
F. number of routes in the routing table at the remote site
Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:
Q124
Which three components comprise the AVVID framework? (Choose three.)

A. common network infrastructure
B. abstracted integration
C. network solutions
D. intelligent network services
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Q125
What is the term for a logical SAN which provides isolation among devices physically connected to the
same fabric?

A. ISL
B. IVR ActualTests.com
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q126
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?

A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 51
B. redundant servers at the access level
C. modular block design at the access level
D. high port densities at the access level
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q127
One of your customers is using the G.711 codec with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a
maximum of how many phones per access point?

A. 8
B. 14
C. 23
D. 7
E. 19
Answer: D
Explanation: The reason being that 7 phones per Access Point is the recommended practice provided by CISCO Q128 A company is using a multi-site centralized call processing model. Which feature ensures that the remote site IP phones will still have limited functionality given a WAN outage?
ActualTests.com
A. Call Admission Control
B. TAPI
C. MGCP
D. SRST
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q129
As an experienced technician, you are responsible for Technical Support. A customer calls to ask the best
signal level and noise level for cell phone. How to respond?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 52
A. -40dBm signal and -90dBm noise
B. -50dBm signal and -90dBm noise
C. -30dBm signal and -90dBm noise
D. -20dBm signal and -90dBm noise
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q130
As an experienced technician, you are responsible for Technical Support. Which of the following
descriptions is correct about the characteristic of SLB one arm mode?

A. This out-of-band approach supports scaling
B. SLB is not inline.
C. Mode is not as common as bridge or routed mode.
D. Return traffic requires PBR, server default gateway pointing to SLB, or client source NAT.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q131
Which design topology incurs a performance penalty since there are two encryption-decryption cycles
between any two remote sites?

A. peer-to-peer
B. peer-to-peer
C. partial mesh ActualTests.com
D. hub and spoke
E. full mesh
Answer: D
Explanation: Q132 Users at the Charleville Company began experiencing high network delays when Internet connectivity was enabled for all users. After investigating the traffic flow, you determine that peer- to-peer traffic from a music download site is consuming a large amount of bandwidth. Which QoS mechanism can you implement to improve the network response time?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 53
A. Use CBWFQ to queue the peer-to-peer traffic into the default traffic class.
B. Use class-based WRED to randomly drop the peer-to-peer traffic during network congestions.
C. Use class-based policing to limit the peer-to-peer traffic rate.
D. Use class-based shaping to delay any excessive peer-to-peer traffic.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q133
Which statement about IDS/IPS design is correct?

A. An IPS should be deployed if the security policy does not support the denial of traffic.
B. An IPS analyzes a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet.
C. An IDS analyzes a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet.
D. Bandwidth considerations must be taken into account since IDS is deployed inline to traffic flow.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q134
What are disadvantages to storage directly attached to the application servers? (Choose three.)

A. reliability
B. scalability
C. redundancy
D. manageability ActualTests.com
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
B: System administrators are faced with the challenging task to managing storage and making it scalable to accommodate future needs. With storage directly attached to the server, scalability is difficult. The storage expansion capability is limited to the capacity of the server (for example, as measured by the number of I/O controllers and devices per controller configured is the server). The nature of the small computer system (SCSI) bus commonly used to connect commodity disks to a commodity server makes it difficult to allocate more disk storage without interrupting and rebooting the server, and thus affecting applications.
C: No redundancy is provided Reference: Arch student guide p.13-6.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54 Q135 As an experienced technician, you are responsible for infrastructure design and global configuration changes. You are asked to deploy a Voice over Wireless LAN for your company. If the cells have the same channel, the separation between them should be:
A. 19dbm
B. 10dbm
C. 67dbm
D. 86dbm
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q136
When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to help
eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three.)

A. rate limit voice traffic
B. configure spanning-tree for fast link convergence
C. isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs
D. classify and mark traffic close to the source
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q137 Which two settings must be configured in order to use the GUI to configure Call Admission Control with voice applications? (Choose two.)
A. QoS must be set to Platinum
B. WMM must be enabled
C. QoS must be set to Gold
D. TSPEC must be disabled
E. Cisco Compatible Extensions must be disabled
Answer: A,B
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 55 Explanation: Q138 Which IP telephony deployment model uses an H.225 Gatekeeper-Controlled trunk for call admission control within existing H.323 environments?
A. single site with centralized call processing
B. single site with distributed call processing
C. multisite with centralized call processing
D. multisite with distributed call processing
Answer: D
Explanation: Q139 You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. In your company site, a NAS is both physically and logically in the traffic path. The NAS identifies clients solely based on their MAC addresses. In which access mode has this NAS been configured to operate?
A. Layer 2 mode
B. Layer 2 Edge mode
C. Layer 3 mode
D. Layer 3 In-Band mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q140 The network administrator would like to generate synthetic traffic using the Service Assurance Agent contained in Cisco IOS. Which CiscoWorks network management application will be used to report the latency and availability for configured traffic operations on an end-to-end and hop-by- hop (router-to-router) basis?
A. nGenius Real-Time Monitor
B. CiscoView
C. Device Fault Manager
D. Internetwork Performance Monitor “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 56
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q141
A Fibre Channel fabric (or Fibre Channel switched fabric, FC-SW) is a switched fabric of Fibre Channel
devices enabled by a Fibre Channel switch. Fabrics are normally subdivided by Fibre Channel zoning.

Each fabric has a name server and provides other services. Higher redundancy over FC-AL, P2P.Which
path selection protocol is used by Fibre Channel fabrics?

A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. FSPF
D. VSANs
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q142
Which two benefits does VoFR provide? (Choose two.)

A. bandwidth efficiency
B. cell-switching
C. congestion notification
D. heterogeneous network ActualTests.com
Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Q143
Which of these statements best describes VPLS?

A. Neither broadcast nor multicast traffic is ever flooded in VPLS.
B. Multicast traffic is flooded but broadcast traffic is not flooded in VPLS.
C. VPLS emulates an Ethernet switch, with each EMS being analogous to a VLAN.
D. Because U-PE devices act as IEEE 802.1 devices, the VPLS core must use STP. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 57
E. When the provider experiences an outage, IP re-routing restores PW connectivity and MAC re- learning is needed.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q144
When is the site-to-site remote access model appropriate? (Choose one.)

A. for multiple ISDN connections
B. for modem concentrated dial-up connections
C. for a group of users in the same vicinity sharing a connection
D. for use by mobile users
Answer: A
Explanation: Q145 VLAN Tagging, also known as Frame Tagging, is a method developed by Cisco to help identify packets travelling through trunk links. When an Ethernet frame traverses a trunk link, a special VLAN tag is added to the frame and sent across the trunk link .How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. provide service internetworking
B. support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. indicate destination as a connection identifier
D. map to the DLCI in service internetworking ActualTests.com
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q146
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when
configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones?

A. 79xx IP phones do not automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values.
B. 79xx IP phones do not mark protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS, or TFTP with non-zero DSCP values. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 58
C. 79xx IP phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values.
D. 79xx IP phones use a custom protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: Q147 Fibre Channel, or FC, is a gigabit-speed network technology primarily used for storage networking. Fibre Channel is standardized in the T11 Technical Committee of the InterNational Committee for Information Technology Standards (INCITS), an American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Caccredited standards committee.
Which two of these correctly describe Fibre Channel? (Choose two.)
A. supports multiple protocols
B. works only in a shared or loop environment
C. allows addressing for up to 4 million nodes
D. provides a high speed transport for SCSI payloads
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Q148
Which two are characteristics of RSVP? (Choose two.)

A. RSVP itself provides bandwidth and delay guarantees. ActualTests.com
B. For RSVP to be end-to-end, all devices must support RSVP.
C. RSVP reservations are maintained by a centralized reservations server.
D. An RSVP compatible QoS mechanism must be used to implement guarantees according to RSVP reservations.
Answer: B,D
Explanation: Q149 The Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer SAN Switches can help lower the total cost of ownership of the most demanding storage environments. By combining a robust and flexible hardware architecture with multiple layers of network and storage-management intelligence, the Cisco MDS
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 59 9000 Series helps you build highly available, scalable storage networks with advanced security and unified management.
What method does the Cisco MDS 9000 Series use to support trunking?
A. ISL
B. VLAN Trunk
C. VoQ
D. Enhanced ISL
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q150
Which QoS requirement applies to streaming video traffic?

A. one-way latency of 150 ms to 200 ms
B. jitter of 30 ms or less
C. packet loss of 2 percent or less
D. 150bps of overhead bandwidth
Answer: C
Explanation: Q151 DRAG DROP

ActualTests.com Answer: “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 60

Q152 To ensure voice packets are kept within the Committed Information Rate (CIR) of a Frame Relay link, what should be used in the CPE?
A. prioritization
B. classification
C. fragmentation
D. traffic shaping
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q153
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which layer NAS operating mode are ACL filtering and
bandwidth throttling only provided during posture assessment?

A. Layer 2 ActualTests.com
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. out-of-band
Answer: D
Explanation: Q154 A security analysis at The Potomac Canal Company recommends installing an IDS appliance and a firewall appliance. These appliances should connect directly into a Layer 3 switch. A load “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 61 balancer and SSL termination have also been recommended.Potomac’s management have expressed concern over the cost.
You suggest using integrated blades. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of your design proposal? (Choose two.)
A. The data center would need several devices to achieve its goal.
B. Increased usage of standalone devices is cost-effective.
C. Using integrated blades would only require two devices.
D. Putting all security devices in a single chassis provides a single point of failure.
Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Q155
Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs?

A. IVR
B. FSPF
C. FICON
D. SANTap
Answer: A
Explanation: Q156 Which content networking device allows bandwidth configuration settings so that streaming ActualTests.com content will not interfere with other network traffic?
A. IP/TV Control Server
B. Content Distribution Manager
C. Content Engine
D. IP/TV Broadcast Server
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q157
What is the purpose of IGMP in a multicast implementation?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 62

A. it is not used in multicast
B. it determines the virtual address group for a multicast destination
C. it dynamically registers individual hosts in a multicast group on a specific LAN
D. it is used on WAN connections to determine the maximum bandwidth of a connection
E. it determines whether Bidirectional PIM or PIM sparse mode will be used for a multicast flow
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q158
What is high availability?

A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q159
Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)

A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers. ActualTests.com
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
E. The TCO is higher because of the cost of director class storage switches.
Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Q160
Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least disruption
of service when making topology changes?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 63

Explanation:
Q163
The VPN termination function provides the ability to connect two networks together securely over the
internet. Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?

A. termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
B. termination devices need not routable addresses inside the VPN
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPsec VPN
D. addressing designs need to allow for summarization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q164
When dealing with transparent caching, where should the Content Engines be placed?

A. close to the servers
B. close to the end users
C. at the Internet edge
D. in front of web server farms
Answer: B

Explanation:
ActualTests.com
Q165
Which of these statements is true of routing protocols in a hub-and-spoke IPsec VPN topology?

A. EIGRP can summarize per interface.
B. OSPF router databases remain independent.
C. When they are configured with stubs, EIGRP regularly floods the topology.
D. OSPF topology decisions are made independent of hierarchy or area.
Answer: A

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 65
Explanation:
Q166
Which three things can be restricted by the Class of Service in a traditional PBX? (Choose three.)

A. dial plans
B. dialed numbers
C. voice mail prompts
D. phone features
Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
Q167
Which two characteristics are true of a firewall running in routed mode based on the following information?
ActualTests.com
A. FWSM routes traffic between the VLANs.
B. FWSM switches traffic between the VLANs.
C. Routed mode is often called bump-in-the-wire mode.
D. Routed mode firewall deployments are used most often in current designs.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 66 Q168 Which statement about CiscoWorks 2000 Inventory Manager is true?
A. It uses SNMP v1.
B. It scans devices for hardware information.
C. It scans and records the operational status of devices.
D. When the configuration of a device changes, the inventory is automatically updated.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q169
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Which of these practices should you follow when
designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?

A. Never peer on transit links.
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence.
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence.
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q170
ActualTests.com
Which two statements are true about MLP interleaving? (Choose two.)

A. It fragments and encapsulates all packets in a fragmentation header.
B. Packets smaller than the fragmentation size are interleaved between the fragments of the larger packets.
C. Packets larger than the fragmentation size are always fragmented, and cannot be interleaved, even if the traffic is voice traffic.
D. It fragments and encapsulates packets that are longer than a configured size, but does not encapsulate smaller packets inside a fragmentation header.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 67 Previous implementations of Cisco IOS Multilink PPP (MLP) include support for Link Fragmentation Interleaving (LFI). This feature allows the delivery of delay-sensitive packets, such as the packets of a Voice call, to be expedited by omitting the PPP Multilink Protocol header and sending the packets as raw PPP packets in between the fragments of larger data packets. This feature works well on bundles consisting of a single link. However, when the bundle contains multiple links there is no way to keep the interleaved packets in sequence with respect to each other.
Interleaving on MLP allows large packets to be multilink encapsulated and fragmented into a small enough size to satisfy the delay requirements of real-time traffic; small real-time packets are not multilink encapsulated and are transmitted between fragments of the large packets.
Note: The following URL from Cisco’s website explains this feature: http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios122/122cgcr/fqos_c/fqcprt6/qcflfi.htm #wp1000907
“(Optional) Configures a maximum fragment delay. If, for example, you want a voice stream to have a
maximum bound on delay of 20 milliseconds (ms) and you specify 20 ms using this command, MLP will choose a fragment size based on the configured value.” Packets are fragmented when they exceed the configured maximum delay. Q171 ____ dBm is the recommended radius of a cell for a voice-ready wireless network.
A. 4 ActualTests.com
B. 6
C. 7
D. 10
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q172
What are two considerations to using IP Multicast delivery? (Choose two.)

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 68

A. no congestion avoidance
B. not for bandwidth intensive applications
C. no guaranteed delivery mechanism
D. source sends multiple data streams out each interface
Answer: A,C

Explanation: Explanation; Multicast disadvantage are Best-effort delivery, No congestion avoidance,
Duplicates and Out-of order delivery.
Q173
The Cisco IOS SLB feature is a Cisco IOS-based solution that provides server load balancing. This feature
allows you to define a virtual server that represents a cluster of real servers, known as a server farm.

When a client initiates a connection to the virtual server, the IOS SLB load balances the connection to a
chosen real server, depending on the configured load balance algorithm or predictor.

Which three implementation modes may be used to deploy SLB? (Choose three.)

A. Router mode
B. One-arm mode
C. Three-arm mode
D. Bridge mode inline
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
ActualTests.com Q174 With Call Manager v3.1, what is the maximum number of servers in a Cluster?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: D

Explanation:
The primary advantage of the distributed call processing model is that, by using local call

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 69
processing, it provides the same level of features and capabilities whether the IP WAN is available or not.
Each site can have from one to eight Cisco CallManager servers in a cluster based on the number of

users. Reference: Arch student guide p.11-43 Q175 You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. You are designing an e-Commerce module, which routing statement is correct?
A. Routing is mostly static.
B. Hardcoded IP addresses are used to support failover.
C. Inbound servers use the CSM or ACE as the default gateway.
D. VLANs between the access layer switches are used for FHRP protocols.
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q176
A network vulnerability scanner is part of which critical element of network and system security?

A. host security
B. perimeter security
C. security monitoring
D. policy management ActualTests.com
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q177
To securely transport EIGRP traffic, a network administrator will build VPNs between sites. What is the
best method to accomplish the transport of EIGRP traffic?

A. IPSec in tunnel mode
B. IPSec in transport mode
C. GRE with IPSec in transport mode
D. GRE with IPSec in tunnel mode “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 70
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q178
You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. What is the term for a logical SAN which provides
isolation among devices physically connected to the same fabric?

A. InterSwitch Link
B. Virtua LAN
C. Virtual Output Queuing
D. virtual storage area network
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q179
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?

A. up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level
B. redundant servers at the access level
C. modular block design at the access level
D. high port densities at the access level
Answer: C
Explanation:
ActualTests.com
Q180 A virtual storage area network (VSAN) is a collection of ports from a set of connected Fibre Channel switches, that form a virtual fabric. Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs?
A. IVR
B. FSPF
C. FICON
D. SANTap
Answer: A

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 71
Explanation:

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