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QUESTION 87
You are working with a client to deploy QoS on their Frame Relay WAN. They would like to be able to allow packets to cross the Frame Relay WAN but have them marked as discard eligible if they exceed the QoS policy. How would you accomplish this task?
A. Configure a class map that sets the DE bit so that the policy map can correctly apply a violate-action if the policy is exceeded.
B. Configure a service policy that sets the DE bit and apply it to the serial interface connected to the Frame Relay WAN.
C. Configure a policy map that has a burst-max action of setting the DE bit if the policy is exceeded.
D. Configure a policy map that has a violate-action to change the DE bit from 0 to 1.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 88
In comparison with traditional Layer 2 and Layer 3 system, Cisco Catalyst 6500 Virtual Switching System (VSS) 1440 simplifies a network by the means of:
A. providing loop-free technology.
B. providing HSRP/VRRP.
C. managing additional routing peers.
D. managing two nodes and configuration.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 89
Which of these commands can you use to show if an operational Catalyst switch port is set for autonegotiation of speed and duplex when running Cisco IOS software?
A. show port network <interface>
B. show running-config
C. show controllers Ethernet-controller <interface>
D. show interfaces <interface>
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 90
Which three of the following are components of a syslog message? (Choose three.)
A. time stamp
B. error codes
C. severity level
D. log message name
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 91
Which keyword is used with the debug ipv6 [keyword] command to troubleshoot neighbor discovery problems?
A. transaction
B. icmp
C. discovery
D. nd
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 92
Which description is making sense on the basis of the given information?
router bgp 65000 bgp log-neighbor-changes neighbor 10.11.1.187 remote-as 65001 neighbor 10.11.1.187 update-source loopback 0 bgp graceful-restart
A. BGP NSF Awareness is enabled
B. 10.11.1.187 is configured as an NSF-capable BGP neighbor
C. BGP gracerful restart awarness is enabled
D. SSO for BGP NSF capability is enabled
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 93
Which command displays only those entries in a BGP table with specific AS_PATH attributes?
A. show ip bgp inconsistent-as
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp community-list
D. show ip bgp regexp
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 94
Which keyword is used with the show ip bgp neighbors [keyword] command to display all routes that are received and accepted from a neighbor?
A. paths
B. accepted-routes
C. advertised-routes
D. routes
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 95
Which command is used to view IPv6 parameters related to the BGP process?
A. show ip bgp ipv6
B. show protocols ipv6
C. show ipv6 bgp
D. show bgp ipv6
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 96
Which Cisco IOS command is used to troubleshoot a problem in which a BGP session stays in the active state?
A. debug ip bgp updates
B. debug ip tcp events
C. debug ip bgp transactions
D. debug ip tcp transactions
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
What is the most likely reason that an IBGP route that has been selected as a best route is not entered into the IP routing table?
A. Route reflectors are not passing updates properly.
B. BGP synchronization has been enabled.
C. The next-hop address is unreachable.
D. No loopback interface has been configured on a router.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 98
As a network administrator, you issue the interface auto qos voip cisco-phone command on a port in an edge network. It is possible for a Cisco Catalyst switch to check if a Cisco IP Phone is directly attached to that port by:
A. using DHCP snooping
B. snooping the incoming 802.1Q VLAN tag
C. using CDP
D. snooping the CoS marking on the incoming frames
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 99
What is the maximum number of Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switches that can be united into a single manageable unit using the Cisco StackWise technology?
A. 9
B. 3
C. 12
D. 6
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
What is the function of the no switchport catalyst switch interface configuration command?
A. Disables the interfaces to prevent traffic flow
B. Clears all the configurations on the interface
C. Switches the port from access mode to trunk mode
D. Converts the port from physical Layer 2 port to physical Layer 3 port
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101
As an experienced network engineer, you are asked to troubleshoot a CIS network outage. During the troubleshooting process, you notice that one of your colleagues connects additional devices to the network with the use of his own switch. With the purpose of improving speed, the switch is attached to both network ports in an office, which leads to bridge loop. Enabling which of the following feature will be able to prevent this problem from happening again?
A. GLBP
B. RSTP
C. BPDU guard
D. root guard
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 102
In a RSTP implementation, which of the following two link types are used? (Choose two.)
A. Shared
B. Point-to-Point
C. Designated
D. Multiaccess non-broadcast
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 103
In a high-availability network, which command, when placed on ports that have connected end stations, will allow you to prevent delays in service for end stations by placing a port in blocking mode?
A. enable backbone fast
B. enable uplink fast
C. disable portfast
D. enable portfast
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 104
Which two statements are correct in verifying SPFv3 IPv6 routing configurations? (Choose two.)
A. OSPFv3 is enabled per-link, not per-network.
B. When configuring a broadcast interface, OSPFv3 requires a list of OSPFv3 neighbors to be manually configured.
C. OSPFv3 requires router to be running CEF.
D. OSPFv3 router ID is now 128 bits instead of 32 bits.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 105
Which configuration will enable OSPF for IPv6 on FastEthernet 0/0/0?
A. interface FastEthernet0/0/0 ipv6 address 2001:0db8:0:0:l::/64 eui-64 ipv6 enable !
router ospf 1
router-id 10.11.11.1
network 2001:0db8:0:0:l::/64 area 1
B. interface FastEthernet0/0/0 ipv6 address 2001:0db8:0:0:l::/64 eui-64 ipv6 enable ipv6 ospf 1 area 1
!
router ospf 1
router-id 10.11.11.1
C. interface FastEthernet0/0/0 ipv6 address 2001:0db8:0:0:l::/64 eui-64 ipv6 enable ipv6 ospf 1 area 1! ipv6 router ospf 1 router-id 10.11.11.1
D. interface FastEthernet0/0/0 ipv6 address 2001:0db8:0:0:l::/64 eui-64 ipv6 enable !
ipv6 router ospf 1
router-id 10.11.11.1
network 2001:0db8:0:0:l::/64
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 106
Which three of these items are IPv6 transition mechanisms? (Choose three.)
A. ISATAP
B. NATV6
C. manually configured overlay tunnels
D. dual stack configurations
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 107
What are four advantages to using tunnel brokers in an IPv6 transition environment?
A. Tunnel brokers automatically provide configuration parameters to peer routers.
B. IPv6 enabling a node looks automatic to the end user.
C. Tunnel information is sent via IPv4.
D. Tunnel brokers make it simpler for nontechnical users to deploy manual tunnels.
Correct Answer: ABCD QUESTION 108
Which of the following is an easy-to-use tool that allows you to easily configure and monitor Cisco Integrated Services Routers?
A. Cisco NAC Appliance
B. Cisco SDM
C. Cisco MWAM
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 109
Which of the following allows network administrators to easily apply common services and employ features across Cisco switches, routers, and access points with an intuitive GUI?
A. Cisco IPS
B. Cisco Network Assistant
C. Cisco VAM2+
D. Cisco SDM
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 110
You have just reinstalled a VIP 6-80 in a Cisco 7500 Series router. What must you do to bring up the port adapter interfaces?
A. All interfaces are online by default once the VIP is up and running normally.
B. All interfaces must be manually brought online, even those previously configured.
C. The previous VIP configuration must be reloaded to bring interfaces online.
D. Any interfaces not previously configured must be manually configured and brought online.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 111
You are an experienced network administrator in an international corporation. One of your clients asks you to configure a network for a financial trading center which requires multiple high-value transactions. And the transactions are very important to the client. In such a situation, which two of the following are basic and most important requirements concerning the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. no single point of failure
B. determine which protocol to use
C. trading database server location
D. deterministic response to all failures
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 112
As an experienced technician, you are responsible for Technical Support in your company. One of the trainees is asking you which Cisco VPN Acceleration Module for Cisco 7200 Series routers and the Cisco 7301 provides high-performance encryption/compression and supports the latest encryption standard. Which of the following will answer his question?
A. AES
B. Cisco IPS
C. Cisco Network Assistant
D. Cisco VAM2+
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 113
You are an experienced network administrator in an international corporation. During your working hours, you are asked to deploy the Cisco SSL VPN AIM module in a Cisco 1800 Series Router. The beneficial reason for that deployment is to:
A. improve performance up to 300% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications
B. improve performance for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with IPsec encryption taking place in hardware
C. improve performance up to 300% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with SSL encryption taking place in hardware
D. improve performance up to 200% for both IPsec and SSL VPN applications with encryption taking place in hardware
E. improve performance exclusively for SSL VPN applications
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 114
What is the purpose of using VPN hardware acceleration equipment?
A. To offload encryptions functions from router memory
B. To use WebVPN instead of IPSec
C. To decrease performance and efficiency
D. To offload encryption functions from a router CPU
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 115
With a VPN Accelerator Module 2+ (VAM2+) installed in a Cisco 7200 series router, what will be the resulting action when entering the command no crypto engine accelerator slot number?
A. disables OIR on the VAM2+ module
B. removes the VAM2+ crypto engine feature and disables the associated configuration commands from the router
C. disables dual VAM2+ hardware stateful failover capabilities
D. disables the crypto engine hardware acceleration, resulting in all crypto functions to be performed in software
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 116
Refer to the exhibit. For the given configuration, on packets leaving the router on interface FastEthernet0/0 that matches the high traffic class, what will the MPLS experimental bit be set to?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these events will be the result of issuing the above command? (Choose two.)
A. 64-bit IPv4 prefix will be created.
B. The route distinguisher will be used to indicate VPN membership.
C. Extended BGP communities will be used to encode route distinguishers.
D. A 96-bit VPNv4 prefix will be created and propagated across the IP network.
E. The route distinguisher is 64 bits and will be prepended to an existing IPv4 route to make it globally unique.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 118
Refer to the exhibit. You want to minimize the downtime that results from supervisor engine switchovers on Cisco 6500 Series Switches and Cisco 7600 Series Routers. To achieve this, you are considering deploying a Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover solution using OSPF.
In the exhibit you can see the output of the show ip ospf neighbor detail command. Which trait of systems using Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover and OSPF is shown in the exhibit output and will impact your plan?
A. Stateful Switchover for Cisco Nonstop Forwarding only works with BGP.
B. Stateful Switchover for Cisco Nonstop Forwarding must be configured on all adjacent routers.
C. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover helper mode is not supported on the adjacent router.
D. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding with Stateful Switchover helper mode for OSPF has been promiscuousstandardized and is supported on the adjacent router.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. Which show command would display the information in the exhibit?
A. show policy-map
B. show policy-map high-priority
C. show interfaces fastEthernet 0/1 policy-map
D. show policy-map interfaces fastEthernet 0/1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
What would the first line in this debug serial interface output indicate?
A. The mineseen HDLC sequence has missed more than three keepalives
B. Keepalives are being received from the other end of a point-to-point link and this end is not sending them.
C. The yourseen HDLC sequence number is out of order.
D. The HDLC myseq has missed more than three keepalive messages, the WAN link keepalive activity will not occur, and you should expect to see a Layer 2 issue.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. PE11 originated label 20.
B. PE11 originated label 21.
C. ThePE11 upstream neighbor originated label 21.
D. The PE11 downstream neighbor originated label 20.
E. PE11 will append label 21 to incoming packets labeled 32.
F. PE11 will impose label 20 on incoming packets labeled 32.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 122
Refer to the exhibit. You have a non-Cisco switch that is not communicating properly while connected to the distribution-layer Cisco switching fabric. Which two best-practice actions can you take to overcome this
A. Turn off MST (802.1s) on all switches.
B. Turn on MST (802.1s) on all switches.
C. Turn on RSTP (802.1w) on all switches.
D. Turn off RSTP (802.1w) on all switches.
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 123
Refer to the exhibit. In analyzing the configuration of the router, which three of these statements are
A. Neighbor 172.16.32.14 will receive VPNv4 routes.
B. Neighbor 172.16.32.15
C. Neighbor 172.16.32.15
D. Neighbor 172.16.32.27
E. Neighbor 172.16.32.27
F. Neighbor 172.16.32.14
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 124
Referring to the partial Cisco Catalyst switch configuration shown, which two of these statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A router connected to the fastethemet 1/4 interface will be able to communicate with hosts connected to interface fastethemet 1/1,1/2, and 1/3.
B. A router connected to the fastethemet 1/4 interface will not be able to communicate with the host connected to interface fastethemet 1/3.
C. Hosts connected to interface fastethemet 1/1 and 1/2 can communicate with each other.
D. Hosts connected to interface fastethemet 1/1,1/2, and 1/3 can communicate with each other.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 125
Refer to the exhibit. Analyze the two traceroutes that are displayed. Which of these statements is correct in describing what most likely caused the traceroute differences?
A. Do not fragment has been configured on PE11.
B. MPLS has been disabled on routers P11 and P12.
C. An access list has been created on P11 to block traceroutes from PE11.
D. The no mpls ip propgate-ttl local command has been configured on PE11
E. ICMP has been disabled on the intermediary routers between PE11 and PE12.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 126
On the Catalyst 6500 Series switch, which command is used to establish a console connection to the Firewall Services Module?
A. ssh
B. connect
C. login
D. session
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 127
When a Cisco router is configured for SSH, it acts as an _______ ?
A. SSH client
B. SSH proxy
C. SSH server
D. SSH and SSL server
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 128
You are trying to initiate an SSH connection to a remote router and are getting rejected with an error code of 0. Which of these might be the cause of the error?
A. The routers are using different SSH versions.
B. You are trying to log in using invalid credentials.
C. The RSA key pair is not properly configured on the SSH client.
D. The RSA key pair is not properly configured on the SSH server.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 129
Refer to the exhibit. Which SSH sessions will the SSH server accept?
A. version 1 only
B. version 2 only
C. versions 1 and 2
D. all versions before 1.99
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 130
As a Network Engineer, you decide to apply Cisco enterprise solution throughout the CIS network. What are the two advantages? (Choose two.)
A. cost savings
B. product variety
C. well-tested interoperability
D. regular upgrade process
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 131
In MPLS networks, what s the benefit of disabling TTL propagation?
A. To provide a visible extension of MPLS TTL functionality in a non MPLS-enabled domain
B. To improve the IGP convergence time
C. To hide visibility to the core (provider) routers in the MPLS network
D. To provide a visible extension of IP TTL functionality in an MPLS-enabled domain
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 132
CIS .com recently acquired a smaller competitor. The acquired company is not currently using Cisco routers, so you have connected the two WANs via an authenticated PPP link. After configuration both routers, issuing the show interface s0/0 command on the Cisco Router shows the interface to be in the up/ down state. Which two of these are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. Bandwidth statements do not match
B. MTUs do not match
C. IP Addresses are not in the same subnet
D. CHAP passwords do not match
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 133
Refer to the exhibit. You have a non-Cisco switch that is not communicating properly while connected to the distribution-layer Cisco switching fabric. Which two best-practice actions can you take to overcome this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Turn off MST (802.1s) on all switches.
B. Turn on MST (802.1s) on all switches.
C. Turn on RSTP (802.1w) on all switches.
D. Turn off RSTP (802.1w) on all switches.
Correct Answer: BD
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